Best Websites
Since
1998 BestWebsites.com.my features thousands of best websites
in many
categories of interest with descriptions/reviews given by leading
publications and webmasters.
Home
April 2006
Test
Your Knowledge of Security+ Topics
by
Emmett Dulaney
The Security+ exam from CompTIA is
an entry-level certification for those wanting to authenticate their
knowledge of basic computer/networking security concepts. It consists
of 100 multiple choice questions that need to be answered within 90
minutes.
This sample test of 50 questions is
intended to let you test your knowledge of the subject of basic
security and your readiness for this, or a similar, certification
test. It should also be pointed out that CompTIA offers a page of
study tips for the exam, and it is worth skimming.
Answers are at the end of the
article. Good luck!
1. What term is used to describe
the inability of a sender to deny the sending of a message?
a.
Integrity
b. Nonrepudiation
c. Labeling
d. Authenticity
2. Which of the following
organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a.
NSA
b. NIST
c. IEEE
d. ITU
3. Which of the following
authorization methods requires the client to be preauthenticated?
a. Certificates
b. Tokens
c. Kerberos
d. PAP
4. Which working group is
responsible for the development of the X.509 certificate standard?
a. PKCS
b. PKIX
c. IEEE
d. ISOP
5. Which protocol provides security
for terminal sessions to a remotely located Unix system?
a. SSL
b. TLS
c. SSH
d. PKI
6. Which of the following terms is
used to describe an opening left in a program or application by a
developer?
a. Back door
b. Window
c. Open latch
d. Black hole
7. Which of the following is a
remote administration tool used by hackers to take control of
Windows-based systems?
a. Netstat
b. BGP
c. Iwconfig
d. Back Orifice
8. Which of the following keys are
needed to make a key recovery process work? (choose all that apply)
a. Current key
b. Previous key
c. Archived key
d. Escrow key
9. Which of the following
statements is true?
a. Key renewal is a good practice.
b. Key renewal is a bad practice.
c. Rollovers automatically renew a key.
d. The suspension process automatically renews a key.
10. What is the process of creating
new keys to replace expired keys called?
a. Key renewal
b. Rollover
c. Archival
d. Revocation
11. PKCS uses which key pairs for
encryption?
a. Symmetric
b. Public/Private
c. Asymmetric/Symmetric
d. Private/Private
12. Which port does the TACACS
authentication service utilize by default?
a. 80
b. 49
c. 25
d. 22
13. Which port does the NetBIOS
session service utilize by default?
a. 389
b. 143
c. 139
d. 110
14. Which file extension should NOT
be allowed with an email attachment?
a. .doc
b. .scr
c. .txt
d. .xls
15. Which port does IPSec use for
ESP?
a. 50
b. 51
c. 52
d. 53
16. Which password attack can be
used to successfully break the password
7Tt%kJ51&?
a. Dictionary
b. Man-in-the-middle
c. Brute force
d. Birthday
17. Which type of RAID mirrors
drives?
a. RAID 0
b. RAID 1
c. RAID 3
d. RAID 5
18. What is the minimum number of
disks needed for most deployments of RAID 5?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. What type of system(s) does PGP
utilize?
a. Symmetrical
b. Asymmetrical
c. Both symmetrical and asymmetrical
d. Neither symmetrical nor asymmetrical
20. In order for Kerberos to
function properly, what must be working correctly?
a. Clustering
b. ODI
c. Time synchronization
d. Pair management
21. What can be used to slow the
flow of individuals into a building and funnel them past security?
a. Mantrap
b. Honey pot
c. IDS
d. OSI
22. What is the condition in which
unsoldered chips slowly work their way loose and out of a socket over
time known as?
a. Firmware scramble
b. Chip creep
c. Shirting
d. Displacement
23. What type of virus modifies and
alters other programs and databases?
a. Phish
b. Phat
c. Phage
d. Phart
24. A user you do not know
frantically emails you with an urgent message. According to the
message, there is a new virus going around that is resetting the dates
on all computers to 1969, and they are worried that this might happen
to all the systems on your network. What should you first do?
a. Disconnect all users and run a
full backup.
b. Email a dozen other administrators and let them know of the
problem.
c. Disconnect the network until it is safe again.
d. Verify that this is not a hoax.
25. Which of the following is
defined as any unwanted, unsolicited email?
a. Spoof
b. Spam
c. Hoax
d. Junk
26. What is the major difference
between a revoked key and a suspended key?
a. There is no difference.
b. A suspended key can't be used again, but a revoked key can.
c. A revoked key can't be used again, but a suspended key can.
d. A key cannot be revoked, but can be suspended.
27. What type of policy is used to
lay out guidelines and expectations for upgrades, monitoring, backups,
and audits?
a. Administrative
b. Loquacious
c. Cryptographic
d. Associative
28. What would be the acceptable
amount of downtime each year with a policy of 98 percent uptime?
a. 1 1/2 days
b. 3 1/4 days
c. 5 2/5 days
d. 7 1/3 days
29. Which of the following client
IP addresses would indicate that NAT is likely used on the network?
a. 1.2.3.4
b. 12.34.45.56
c. 192.168.0.25
d. 200.1.1.1
30. Which type of firewalls are
used to process requests from an outside network and make rules-based
decisions about whether the request should be forwarded or refused?
a. Proxy
b. Deputy
c. Delegate
d. Representative
31. What are the three primary
connectors used with coax?
a. Substitute
b. T-connector
c. Inline
d. Terminating
32. Which type of wireless
communication allows a point-to-point connection to be made and
requires a direct line of sight?
a. 802.11x
b. WEP
c. WAP
d. Infrared
33. Which model is similar in
concept to the Bell La-Padula model, but is more concerned with
information integrity?
a. Dome
b. Regulator
c. Biba
d. Grandfather
34. What type of device can
authenticate a user based on a physical characteristic?
a. RBAC
b. Biometric
c. RFID
d. ARO
35. Which type of attack focuses on
finding similar keys in MD5?
a. Birthday
b. Propitious
c. Fateful
d. Centenary
36. Which of the following types of
backup sites is not immediately ready to use when a disaster strikes?
a. Chain
b. Round
c. Warm
d. Cold
37. How is information about you
(and your preferences) stored within a cookie?
a. Plain text
b. RSA encrypted
c. Hashed
d. MD5 encrypted
38. You have inherited a network
utilizing a proxy server that is "dual-homed". What does this mean?
a. It utilizes caching to store the
most commonly requested files and serve them to clients.
b. It has two NIC cards — one on the internal network and one on the
outside network.
c. It operates as both a proxy server and a client machine for an
individual user.
d. It has failover redundancy in case one NIC card or connection
fails.
39. Which of the following is the
process of luring someone into your plan or trap?
a. Decoy concealing
b. Alluring
c. Enticement
d. Entrapment
40. What is the term used to
describe any type of passive attack that intercepts data in an
unauthorized manner?
a. Prying
b. Overhearing
c. Snooping
d. Eavesdropping
41. Your intrusion detection
software signals that an attack is underway. When you go to
investigate, however, you find that the system is functioning exactly
as it should and there is no attack. What is this known as?
a. Double negative
b. False positive
c. False alarm
d. Filter error
42. According to CERT, which type
of group may be ad hoc, but truly should exist before an incidence
occurs?
a. Escalation lineup
b. Working party
c. Recommendation panel
d. Response team
43. The time between when the CRL
is issued and when it reaches users may be too long for some
applications. What is this time gap referred to as?
a. Latency
b. Deferral
c. Adjournment
d. Lag
44. Which of the following terms is
used in conjunction with integrity levels that allow information to
flow downward but not upward?
a. Hierarchy
b. Lattice
c. Stepladder
d. Tree
45. Which of the following is the
correct formula for computing Annual Loss Expectancy?
a. ALE = SLE / ARO
b. ALE = ARO / SLE
c. ALE = SLE x ARO
d. ALE = SLE + ARO
46. Which encryption protocol is
replacing DES as the current standard?
a. AES
b. DSE
c. CAST
d. CASE
47. Which type of attack captures
encryption keys by passively monitoring LAN communications and then
uses the keys to impersonate authorized users and take over their
sessions?
a. Hijacking
b. DoS
c. Multiheaded hydra
d. Kerberos
48. The International Organization
for Standardization (ISO) publishes the "Code of Practice for
Information Security Management". What is this known as?
a. ISO 23459
b. ISO 17799
c. ISO 443
d. ISO 110
49. What is the name given to
software designed with a malicious intent?
a. Spyware
b. Malware
c. Orphanware
d. Harmware
50. Within IPSec, AH and ESP have
two modes. What are they? (choose two)
a. Transport mode
b. Tunnel mode
c. Encrypt mode
d. Decrypt mode
Answers
1. Nonrepudiation is a requirement
for many cryptographic applications. The sender or receiver, using an
electronic signature, can't repudiate a message. Answer: B
2. The NSA is primarily responsible
for military encryption systems. The NSA designs, evaluates, and
implements encryption systems for the military and government agencies
with high security needs. Answer: A
3. Tokens are issued to
authenticated users, and they provide a list of the permissions
attached to the user. For example, the token issued in a Microsoft NOS
contains the user's Security Identifier (SID) and the SIDs of all the
groups to which the user belongs. These SIDs are compared to an access
control list (ACL) to determine authorization and access. Answer: B
4. The PKIX working group is
responsible for the X.509 certificate standard. The PKIX committee
reports to the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Answer: B
5. SSH is the most commonly used
protocol for secure connections for terminal sessions. SSH operates
similarly to a Unix shell, and it allows for similar functionality.
Answer: C
6. A back door is an opening left
in a program or application by a developer. Answer: A
7. Back Orifice is a remote
administration tool used by hackers to take control of Windows-based
systems. Answer: D
8. The current, previous, and
archived keys must be accessible for a key recovery process to work.
If information is encrypted using a key that has expired or been
revoked, the information won't be accessible.
Answer: A & B &
C
9. Key renewal is considered a bad
practice. The longer a key is used, the more susceptible it is to
decryption. However, key renewal processes may be necessary in a dire
situation where a rollover isn't wanted. Answer: B
10. A rollover process is used to
issue new keys when a key is about to expire. Answer: B
11. Public Key Cryptographic
Systems use a public and private key. The public key can be sent to
others to encrypt messages for you. The private key is used to decrypt
messages. Answer: B
12. The TACACS authentication
service, by default, uses port 49. Port 80 is used by HTTP. Port 25 is
used by SMTP. Port 22 is used by SSH. Answer: B
13. The NetBIOS session service, by
default, uses port 139. Port 389 is used by LDAP. Port 143 is used by
IMAP, and port 110 is used by POP3. Answer: C
14. The .scr extension is used for
screen savers. Screensavers, as executables, actually have the ability
to do a number of nasty things, such as lock the screen, and wreak
havoc. Answer: B
15. The two main wire-level
protocols used by IPSec are AH (Authentication Header) and ESP
(Encapsulating Security Payload). IPSec uses port 50 for ESP. Answer:
A
16. Dictionary, guessing, and
birthday attacks work only against passwords that are actual words or
dates. A brute-force attack works best against a password that is a
series of letters, numbers, and symbols. Answer: C
17. In a RAID 1 array, the drives
are mirrored. Answer: B
18. Most RAID 5 implementations
require a minimum of three disks. Answer: C
19. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) uses
both symmetrical and asymmetrical systems. Answer: C
20. In order for Kerberos to
function properly, time synchronization must be working correctly. If
clocks drift from the correct time, problems can occur with trying to
compare timestamps and authenticate. Answer: C
21. Mantraps require visual
identification, as well as authentication, to gain access. A mantrap
makes it difficult for a facility to be accessed in number, because it
allows only one or two people into the facility at a time. Answer: A
22. Major fluctuations in AC power
can contribute to a condition known as chip creep. With creep,
unsoldered chips slowly work their way loose and out of a socket over
time. Answer: B
23. A phage virus modifies and
alters other programs and databases. Answer: C
24. When you receive an email you
suspect is a hoax, check the CERT site before forwarding the message
to anyone else. The creator of the hoax wants to create widespread
panic, and if you blindly forward the message to co-workers and
acquaintances, you're helping the creator accomplish that task.
Answer: D
25. Spam is defined as any
unwanted, unsolicited email, and not only can the sheer volume of it
be irritating, but it can often provide the door to larger problems.
Answer: B
26. The major difference is that a
revoked key can't be used again, whereas the status of a suspended key
can be changed to allow the key to be used again. Once a key is
revoked, a new key is required. Answer: C
27. Administrative policies lay out
guidelines and expectations for upgrades, monitoring, backups, and
audits. Answer: A
28. With 98% uptime, there is a 2%
downtime of the 525,600 minutes in a year. That means the data would
be down for 10,512 minutes, or 7 1/3 days. Answer: D
29. NAT uses private addresses. The
private address ranges are: 10.0.0.0?10.255.255.255,
172.16.0.0?172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0?192.168.255.255. Answer: C
30. Proxy firewalls are used to
process requests from an outside network; the proxy firewall examines
the data and makes rules-based decisions about whether the request
should be forwarded or refused. The proxy intercepts all the packages
and reprocesses them for use internally. Answer: A
31. The three primary connections
used with coax are the T-connector, the inline connector, and the
terminating connector.
Answer: B & C &
D
32. Infrared requires a direct line
of sight and allows a point-to-point connection to be made between two
IR transceiver-equipped devices. Answer: D
33. The Biba model is similar in
concept to the Bell La-Padula model, but it's more concerned with
information integrity. Answer: C
34. Biometric devices can
authenticate users based on a physical characteristic. Answer: B
35. A birthday attack focuses on
finding similar keys in MD5. Answer: A
36. A cold site is not immediately
ready to use when a disaster strikes. Answer: D
37. Cookies store information in a
plain text file. Answer: A
38. A dual-homed server has two NIC
cards — one on the internal network and one on the outside network.
Answer: B
39. Enticement is the process of
luring someone into your plan or trap. Answer: C
40. Eavesdropping is the term used
to describe any type of passive attack that intercepts data in an
unauthorized manner. Answer: D
41. A false positive is any flagged
event that isn't really an event and has been falsely triggered.
Answer: B
42. An incident response team may
be ad hoc, but truly should exist before an incidence occurs. Answer:
D
43. Latency refers to the time
between when the CRL is issued and when it reaches users. Answer: C
44. The term lattice is used in
conjunction with integrity levels that allow information to flow
downward but not upward. Answer: B
45. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is
equal to Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by Annualized Rate of
Occurrence (ARO). Answer: C
46. The AES encryption protocol is
replacing DES as the current standard. Answer: A
47. Hijacking attacks capture
encryption keys by passively monitoring LAN communications and then
using those keys to impersonate an authorized user and take over their
session. Answer: A
48. The International Organization
for Standardization (ISO) published the ISO 17799 standard, which is
referred to as the "Code of Practice for Information Security
Management".Answer: B
49. Malware is the name given to
software designed with a malicious intent, including spyware, viruses,
and other miscreants. Answer: B
50. The two main wire-level
protocols used by IPSec are AH (Authentication Header) and ESP
(Encapsulation Security Payload). Both can operate in transport mode
or tunnel mode. Answer:
A&B.
Emmett Dulaney is the co-author
of the Security+ Study
Guide, Third Edition (ISBN: 0-4700-3668-0) and author of several
books on Linux/Unix and certification as well as a columnist for
UnixReview. Emmett's blog can be found at
http://edulaney.blogspot.com, and he can be reached (and welcomes
your comments) at
edulaney@iquest.net.
Source:
UnixReview.com
Home Copyright ©
2006 BestWebsites.com.my a collection of
Best
Websites |